Uzair Shafiq [Босс]
FULL MEMBER
maaf kar dya hai ab in ghareebon say kya mangnga?
Lawenge Lawenge ... Kashmir Lawange ....
Marsu Marsu kashmir na desu
Lawenge Lawenge ... Kashmir Lawange ....
Marsu Marsu kashmir na desu
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maaf kar dya hai ab in ghareebon say kya mangnga?
Lawenge Lawenge ... Kashmir Lawange ....
Marsu Marsu kashmir na desu
I am pretty sure you can easily find a scanned copy of the original instrument of accession online if you spend even 2 minutes searching. Seriously try that.
Also the amount of 560 crores Rs. owed by India is calculated after "adjusting for inflation, exchange rate revisions and appreciation of underlying securities during the last six and a half decades."
On the other hand a compound interest of 3% on 300 crores over 67 years makes it 2173.78 crores. And that too after taking the very generous 3% interest rate.
2173 crores is a lot more than 560 crores so I am pretty sure Pakistan is better off keeping its mouth shut about this.
A minor edit. 2173 crores Rs. is the sum in Indian rupees and 560 crores rupees is in Pakistani Rupees. So 560 crores rupees is just 336 crores Indian rupees.
if you have some comprehension issues, it is your problem not mine. Some document being available in India's museum or online or whereever or presenting it officially to an International forum are entirely two different things. I hope now your understand what was I talking about.
Post-Partition: India still owes Pakistan a little over Rs5.6b, says State Bank – The Express Tribune
Your claim seems absurd because,
As for the Indian notes and coins present in currency chests in Pakistan on June 30, 1948, and the ones encashed during the next fiscal year, Pakistan was supposed to return these to the RBI. Subsequently, the SBP was to claim equivalent assets against these Indian notes and coins from the Reserve Bank of India.
According to historian S Aijaz Husain, total assets that the government of Pakistan was entitled to receive from the RBI amounted to Rs1.7 billion. However, the SBP received assets worth only Rs1.2 billion.
The difference between the claims and the actual amount surrendered by the RBI was Rs490.8 million. Out of this amount, “India notes representing assets receivable from the RBI” accounted for Rs430.2 million while assets “held with the RBI pending transfer to Pakistan” equalled Rs59 million.
if there were 300 crors, on Pakistan why was not that amount deducted at first place while while transferring assets of 1.2 Billion (instead of 1.7 Billion)?
Were you trying to claim that because India never deducted that amount other transactions my sources must be false?
There must have been hundreds of transactions between India and Pakistan but why has Pakistan never deducted those 59 million from those transactions? Get a few railway engines for free.