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@AgNoStiC MuSliM @waz can u do something about this religious preaching and historical revisionism from the above poster?
This is going way off topic.
This is going way off topic.
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Nick Allen did some work and he found lots of common mythology between Greeks and Proto Hinduism. I'm not saying his work is definitive but I am saying that Greeks had well kept and established historical time lines unlike Hindu texts and give a more fairer analysis. There is much that has been derived from steppe lore and it didn't form overnight...If we examine the text of the rig veda we find that it does not contain even the faintest hint of any memory of any such invasion . No reference to any area to outside Indian subcontinent. No reference to any foreign ancestral land . The geographic horizon of rigveda is essentially the saptasindhu region from western uttar pradesh and haryana in east to southern afghan in north and the present day border towards iran in west . It has no reference that rigveda arrived into Indian subcontinent from abroad conquering indigenous dravidian people , no reference to conquering destroying a great urban civilization on the contrary the Hymns of the Rigveda show that the composers considered themselves native to the vedic area to which they show great sentimental attachment . The composers were intimately familiar with not only rivers places plants animals of saptsindhu reigion but also with those of eastern India and on other hand thar are no references to foreign rivers places or plants or animals . Hence from Rigvedic texttual evidence its very clear that its composers were native to India .
Now europeans giving meaning to vedas is hillarious larp because we know that max muller wrote a letter to his waifu in 1866 he says that vedas are the root of Indic religion and that he will uproot all that is sprung from vedas from last 3000 years. Hence all these translations of vedas by europeans and jewish british anglo saxon abhramics is nothing but a desire to uproot Dharma in favour of biblical chronology as they believed that yahova the god of jews or father of jesus created everything in about 4004 bce and nothing could have been prior to that . They also believed thar god destroyed world in 3000 bce noahs flood and because of that no history can be present [emoji38]
As for brahmins , its not caste its varna . Brahmin is one who possess the knowledge of "Brahma" Absolute Truth / Ishwara) , Brahmin is a quality later on due to corruption and politics its meaning was changed .
Amusing collection of near decade old papers that have been superseded by work from within the last two years by Reich and others. You have simply ignored the evidence and presented older items for consumption.Brother dont you think it western colonials were the ones who came here to impose thar biblical narrtives upon us and as a result of the aryan migration theory is nothing but a quest for the "western identiy".The majority of the claimants of western civilisation are not actual descendants of the Western Roman empire to begin with. For example, the flag bearers of supposed western civilisation today, United Kingdom, Germany, and its descendants in United States and Anglosphere, the Anglo Saxons are not actually descendants of Roman civilisation or culture and are just barbaric Anglo Saxon tribes (as referenced during Roman period) which robbed and looted and eventually settled in present day England, Germany. They are not Romans, but rather the barbaric tribes which scavenged the corpse of the dying and decaying Roman empire and carved their own respected societies in modern day Britain and Germany. Western Civilization today could be a thing though, but thanks to their 500-600 years of affluence and prosperity gained by looting and genociding everyone else is making them weak and decadent. Karma hitting back maybe . TIme will tell. Western identity is rooted in the judeo christian framework and that framework requires purity of thought. Therefore it cannot have Asian or Indic Cultures even Chinese culture or japanese cultures stepping out . It cannot have that .That separation is thar inside this sub continent ,all the time (they want) every period of time the knowledge needs to come to Asia to this subcontinent by so called "superior" whity and not the other way around ... only lies and nothing pffttt.
Only by reichs and his genecbrigade not as a well established scientific law as " universal law of gravity".
Well you didnt provide any satisfactory answer about why migration into India is not mentioned in rigveda you just relied on few assumptions see Hindutva is a concept that came in 1923 almost 100 years after max muller wrote that letter . And you mention about "certain clever positions adopted by enslavers" .Then well Consider the Baudhayana Shrauta Sutra, a Vedic text. Baudhayana Shrauta Sutra 18:44 records:
“Amavasu migrated westward. His people are Gandhari, Parsu and Aratta.”
This refers to a Vedic king called Amavasu, whose people are the Gandhari (Gandhara – Afghanistan), the Parsu (Persians) and the Aratta, who are tentatively identified as living in the vicinity of Mt. Ararat, which is located in Turkey (eastern Anatolia) and Armenia.Afghanistan (Gandhara) was historically part of the Indian civilization until the Islamic invasions. The name“Persia” comes from the ancient Parshva people (an Aryan clan). The word “Parshva” is derived from the Sanskrit/Avestan (Old Persian) word “Parshu”,
which means “battle-axe”. There are clear linguistic and cultural similarities between Persia and India .
So why would so called aryan warlords who compiled vedas - brahmanism and associated termnologies with it would mention an out of India migration and not into India migration ? (Btw in vedic sanskrit aryan simply means noble person and upholder of eternal cosmic laws aka Dharma . It has nothing to do with racism and brahmanism I have already told meaning of Brhamin you can check dictionaries of Sanskrit).
Even after all these attempts, the Invasion theory leaves behind many more questions than it solves successfully. There are crores of temples for Dravidian Gods- Shiva, Vishnu and Brahma all over India while the Aryan gods- Indira, Varuna, Vayu, Agni etc. have very few temples dedicated to them. Unless one is wilfully brainded manchild, it makes no sense that the any invading superior race who supposedly defeated the indegenious men breeding thar women and made them the lower castes and/or forced them to migrate to the south, would have adopted the gods of the so called dravidians as the primordial deities above thar own Indira or Vayu. Because in reality all of them Indira Vayu Agni Shiva Krishna are just a few among such a huge array of gods and goddesses in hinduism .
No they dont speak .Think about this , if an indian person converts into christianity will the dna also become christian ? Or lets if you learn to speak french will your dna also become french ? No it will not your dna will remain same . Its as simple as that . So Genetics speaking is absurd nonsensical argument because dna doesnt carry religion or languages . Howevar still
I would like to present a very influential paper by American journal of Human genetics . They took one of the largest samples of Indians from across different regions , different backgrounds and so on to try and identify of we are as a people . They postulated an ANI and ASI population and thar interest was to show how was the current population was derived from the ancient population , what was the actual relationship.They showed ANI and ASI diverged from a common ancestor 60000 years ago pretty much co relating with discernment of stephen oppenhiemers ancient men came at India at certain time . They also found that ANI and ASI existed side by side without mixing for a huge and long period of time untill about 4000 years ago certain event caused vicious mixing when they actually started marrying among each other . So when did central asian gene exactly got here ? As since supposedly invading aryans came to India in 1500 bce as per migration larp , so they must have left some genetic imprint in the current population .So to find any evidence of central Asian genes they looked 2000 years back 3000 years back 4000 years back 7000 yrs back 8000 years back 10000 years back and so forth no trace at all. Infact they had to go all the way to 12500 years before in order to find any evidence of central Asian gene in ancestral north Indian population !!!This clearly invalidates aryan migration larp happening in 1500bce and such.
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Genetic Evidence for Recent Population Mixture in India
Most Indian groups descend from a mixture of two genetically divergent populations: Ancestral North Indians (ANI) related to Central Asians, Middle Easterners, Caucasians, and Europeans; and Ancestral South Indians (ASI) not closely related to groups ...www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov
Population Differentiation of Southern Indian Male Lineages Correlates with Agricultural Expansions Predating the Caste System
Previous studies that pooled Indian populations from a wide variety of geographical locations, have obtained contradictory conclusions about the processes of the establishment of the Varna caste system and its genetic impact on the origins and demographic histories of Indian populations. To...journals.plos.org
This paper is from researchers of National Genographic consortium(about when did genetic differentiaion begin) , 1700 or so individuals from tamil nadu were taken into study about endogamy in south if you could think of it as a caste system , it shows that endogamy is 6000 years old in south India. What pro migration larpers try to show that aryans imposed caste system upon dravidians at around 600 bce so any endogamy in caste system should be present in genetic record from 200-300 or 400 bce but what we rather see in south India it is hillarious 6000 years old !
*Endogamy means the custom of marrying only within the limits of a local community, clan, or tribe. So its clear that south Indians didnt indulge in practice of endogamy because of any forced caste system imposed by so called invading aryans in 300-400 bce or so.
Population Differentiation of Southern Indian Male Lineages Correlates with Agricultural Expansions Predating the Caste System
Previous studies that pooled Indian populations from a wide variety of geographical locations, have obtained contradictory conclusions about the processes of the establishment of the Varna caste system and its genetic impact on the origins and demographic histories of Indian populations. To...journals.plos.org
Would like to also add , Thats right SLC24A5 ^ the mutation occurred 30000 years ago and this mutation is present both in ancestral north Indians , europeans and ancestral south Indians .
It is responsible for expression of melanin which controls skin color .
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The Light Skin Allele of SLC24A5 in South Asians and Europeans Shares Identity by Descent
Author Summary Human skin color is one of the most visible aspects of human diversity. The genetic basis of pigmentation in Europeans has been understood to some extent, but our knowledge about South Asians has been restricted to a handful of studies. It has been suggested that a single...journals.plos.org
Also a bit about r1a1a or r-m17 which also happens to be worlds most successful family , its members may possibly be over in billions .The data from the study of Leucotte G gives evidence that the R1a1 found in Punjab is the oldest while the central european haplotype is in the middle and Northern European R1a haplotype is the youngest. This pretty much buries the Aryan invasion migration theories to the ground because if they was true, we would have seen from the genetic results that the eastern european haplotype being the oldest and Indian haplotype being the youngest since reocjs claims that europeans (the parent population) came as invaders or migrants to North India as Aryans
(See - http://www.omicsonline.org/open-acc...plogroup-r1a-in-eurasia-2161-1041-1000150.pdf)
(See - http://repository.ias.ac.in/51846/1/42-PUB.pdf)
(See - https://www.readcube.com/articles/10.1038/jhg.2008.2)
It is also important to note the age of different population groups in the study. The study states that Central/Eastern european population is 12500 years old while Northern Population is 6900 years old. And the Punjabi/North Indian population is at least 15500 years old.The age component in these studies is the most important because as per migration theory, IVC was Dravidian and it ended because of invasion by the Aryans around 1500 BC i.e. 4000 years ago. In the light of above mentioned and similar other genetic studies, the Aryan Invasion theory is off the mark by at least 10000 years. The significance of this fact is that it demolishes the argument of these brainless retards who push the narrative that Hinduism is not native to India and came with the Aryan invaders. Since North Indian population is at least 15,000 years old, this claim falls flat on its face and make Hinduism indigenous to India and India alone. This also shows that hundreds and millions of members even billions of R1a family living across the world today are descended from a single male ancestor who lived in India at least 15500 years ago !!!
Infact , These research paper >
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Europe's Languages Were Carried From the East, DNA Shows
Geneticists have uncovered evidence of a westward migration in Europe about 4,500 years ago—and that may explain a long-standing mystery about language.www.nationalgeographic.com
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Massive migration from the steppe was a source for Indo-European languages in Europe - Nature
A genome-wide analysis of 69 ancient Europeans reveals the history of population migrations around the time that Indo-European languages arose in Europe, when there was a large migration into Europe from the Eurasian steppe in the east (providing a genetic ancestry still present in Europeans...www.nature.com
Shows that Europe experienced a massive population influx from the east, beginning around 4,500 years from the present . Several haplogroups were involved in this demic expansion, including the Indian-origin R1a1a. This was almost a total replacement event, which indicates that Indo-Aryans, among others, expanded westward into Europe and to a large extent replaced indigenous European males and their Y-chromosome strata. This indicates military expansion. Conquest. This genetic evidence indicates that several Y-chromosomal (patrilineal) lineages, one of which was the Indian-origin R1a1a, gave rise to the modern European population. Out of these lineages, R1a1a is the most widespread and numerous.
All of these find no mention in reichs genetic study brigade . Academic research papers must cite all research that is relevant to their work, even if it contradicts their findings and if reichs truthful enough and free from any bias (in which case they must prove that their work improves upon, or disproves that of their predecessors). Thats why reich whose study you quote was criticized and condemned and questioned upon by fellow researchers as well for his prejudiced agenda isnt it .
Also what a joker of a gentic expert one could be that in his paper titled “Massive Migration from the Steppe was a source for Indo-European languages in Europe” that makes the dubious claim of being able
to associate language (and culture) with DNA. It purports to support the hypothesis that the steppe Yamnaya culture represents the origin of Indo-European (IE) languages and culture.
This paper's conclusions have been thoroughly and conclusively demolished by the legendary Russian archaeologist Leo Klejn in two papers published in Acta Archaeologica and the European Journal of Archaeology. Also LOL at this damning new york times article that exposes shocking malpractices in the ancient DNA research ecosystem, reduces reich’s scientific reputation to dust and discredits nearly every piece of research he and his team have published liken to the Final nail in his coffin. (See - https://www.nytimes.com/2019/01/17/magazine/ancient-dna-paleogenomics.html)
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Discussion: Are the Origins of Indo-European Languages Explained by the Migration of the Yamnaya Culture to the West? | European Journal of Archaeology | Cambridge Core
Discussion: Are the Origins of Indo-European Languages Explained by the Migration of the Yamnaya Culture to the West? - Volume 21 Issue 1www.cambridge.org
Given all this I think you should seriously introspect brother and not blind believe in bigoted school yard outcast racists delusional brigade claims.
In the end I would like to tag @Chhatrapati if he has something to add
Regards....
@AgNoStiC MuSliM @waz can u do something about this religious preaching and historical revisionism from the above poster?
This is going way off topic.
Nick Allen did some work and he found lots of common mythology between Greeks and Proto Hinduism. I'm not saying his work is definitive but I am saying that Greeks had well kept and established historical time lines unlike Hindu texts and give a more fairer analysis. There is much that has been derived from steppe lore and it didn't form overnight...
Amusing collection of near decade old papers that have been superseded by work from within the last two years by Reich and others. You have simply ignored the evidence and presented older items for consumption.
The Nat Geo paper regarding migration into Europe certainly mentions westward migration, but not from Bharat, rather from the same steppe land region from whence the eastward migration into India occurred. You should read your own sources more carefully.
This is the point your "pseudo-anti-orientalism" argument falls down on. English researchers had no vested interests in claiming a steppe land origin for ANI DNA because steppe land DNA also swept into Western Europe on the back of mass rape and pilllaging. It's accepted without any sense of victimhood or inferiority. Mature western Europeans accept their DNA was contributed to by Vikings, Steppe land raiders and Mongols - it's not some existential threat. Meanwhile, Hindustan pretends its DNA is all locally sourced.
Keep denying reality.
Reich also bases his hypothesis on the Y- DNA of R1a which he thinks is an Aryan contribution, but some of the oldest R1A haplogroups can be found among South Africa tribes. Either Aryans also invaded the South of Africa, or it's simply back migration of an old group, which again will not be of European origin.It is widespread across Eurasia, with high concentrations in Russia, Poland and Ukraine, as well as in the Indian subcontinent and the Tuva region of Asiatic Russia. So your claim doesnt make any sense at all you need to answer properly brother .
I can't open DMs@Chhatrapati bhraataa can you open your dm for me I have to talk urgently .
Reich also bases his hypothesis on the Y- DNA of R1a which he thinks is an Aryan contribution, but some of the oldest R1A haplogroups can be found among South Africa tribes. Either Aryans also invaded the South of Africa, or it's simply back migration of an old group, which again will not be of European origin.
High time our billionaire industrialists and goverment must starts funding this and let the truth come out . Maybe modi would announce it right before elections kek.
It is all in the name "Iran" ... land of Aryans... in Avestan the language of Northeastern Persia, likely Tajikistan, were the first ones to use the name. Interestingly it also explains why the Persians themselves are so close to Arabs but Aryans aren't... it also explains origin of ancient Persian as an Indo-European language. Persia coopting the name Iran is also akin to modern day use of the word India and its designation...
Ofcourse, being Aryan meant something to Persians... more importantly, superiority/inferiority based on race/ethnicity. It fits like a glove on India, their animist/shamanistic religions and hierarchy.
I wanted to piece something together around "What's in the name" to provide some context. Since, Iran of today is an interesting mix of Turkic, Persian/middle-eastern, Iranic and Indic peoples. Things became interesting and more complex when Turks of yore started using Persian as their court languages and Safavid Turk rule over present day Iran.

I shall keep my response to this particular rant brief. You have attempted simply to character assassinate David Reich, when in reality, his views are shared by scores of other population geneticists. He is the one who had the wherewithal to accuse sanghees of having a problem with these findings, hence his initial comments about Indian “resistance” to his findings. He wanted to call the ANI group “west eurasians”, which was resisted by Hindustanis, as it conflicted with their sanghee narratives. You are continuing this rich tradition of singling him out and vilifying him, when if you read my own references in this very thread and elsewhere, you will become clear and reassured that he is but one of many who reject the “out of india” nonsense emanating from the secular republic’s official/quasi-official mouthpieces.

Word of advice: Read all the relevant text from your quoted sources and don't cherry pick. “The steppe people seem not to have penetrated South Asia. Genetic evidence indicates an independent history involving western Eurasian admixture into ancient South Asian peoples.”
“earliest secure evidence of horse husbandry comes from the Botai culture of Central Asia, whereas direct evidence for Yamnaya equestrianism remains elusive”
“In South Asia, we identified at least two distinct waves of admixture from the west, the first occurring from a source related to the Copper Age Namazga farming culture from the southern edge of the steppe, who exhibit both the Iranian and the EHG components found in many contemporary Pakistani and Indian groups from across the subcontinent. The second came from Late Bronze Age steppe sources, with a genetic impact that is more localized in the north and west.”
“Our findings further suggest that West Eurasian ancestry entered South Asia before and after, rather than during, the initial expansion of western steppe pastoralists”
So, as per your sources, whether “ancient Indians” came from the Yamnaya or a combination of Namazga and Late Bronze Age Steppe sources, they still did not come “out of India”. In general terms, somebody (I don’t really care who) has entered ancient India and spread their DNA to create the northern and western population groups who proceeded to enslave the whole subcontinent, including the native groups from the south.
Quite the rant about what we don’t know. We DO know that north Indians are as “native” to India in terms of genetic composition as “Germans” are to Germany.
Calm down. There is plenty of evidence of origin-dependent genome differences between north and south India, without any such “dependency upon” or “skewing by” the Andamanese contribution as you claim. You are simply overemphasising the Andamanese as some confounding factor to entire volumes of research in this field. Sorry but the Andamanese aren’t going to save sanghee theorists from the harsh realities of their origins.
A genetic chronology for the Indian Subcontinent points to heavily sex-biased dispersals
“Maternal lineages primarily reflect earlier, pre-Holocene processes, and paternal lineages predominantly episodes within the last 10 ka. In particular, genetic influx from Central Asia in the Bronze Age was strongly male-driven, consistent with the patriarchal, patrilocal and patrilineal social structure attributed to the inferred pastoralist early Indo-European society. This was part of a much wider process of Indo-European expansion, with an ultimate source in the Pontic-Caspian region, which carried closely related Y-chromosome lineages, a smaller fraction of autosomal genome-wide variation and an even smaller fraction of mitogenomes across a vast swathe of Eurasia between 5 and 3.5 ka.”
“The Indian society comprises tribal, ranked caste, and other populations that are largely endogamous. As a result of evolutionary antiquity and endogamy, populations of India show high genetic differentiation and extensive structuring. Linguistic differences of populations provide the best explanation of genetic differences observed in this region of the world. Within India, consistent with social history, extant populations inhabiting northern regions show closer affinities with Indo-European speaking populations of central Asia that those inhabiting southern regions. Extant southern Indian populations may have been derived from early colonizers arriving from Africa along the southern exit route. The higher-ranked caste populations, who were the torch-bearers of Hindu rituals, show closer affinities with central Asian, Indo-European speaking, populations.”![]()
The human genetic history of South Asia - PubMed
South Asia--comprising India, Pakistan, countries in the sub-Himalayan region and Myanmar--was one of the first geographical regions to have been peopled by modern humans. This region has served as a major route of dispersal to other geographical regions, including southeast Asia. The Indian...pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov
Don't call me "brother". You're sounding quite desperate to befriend me despite my repeated rejections. And don't think I haven't noticed your "dyslexic" slur. Try and talk jive to my face.Are you dyslexic? He blames RSS for his own screw up LOL . Now character assassination is that all you could come with ?
His conclusions have been thoroughly and conclusively demolished by the legendary Russian archaeologist Leo Klejn in two papers published in Acta Archaeologica and the European Journal of Archaeology I talked about in previous post .
evan his co authors condemned him for his racist behaviour .
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Is Ancient DNA Research Revealing New Truths — or Falling Into Old Traps? (Published 2019)
Geneticists have begun using old bones to make sweeping claims about the distant past. But their revisions to the human story are making some scholars of prehistory uneasy.www.nytimes.com
It has blown the lid off a shocking scandal in paleogenomics. This whoreson reich figures as a central character in this scandal. You are putting the blame on RSS now here is extensive collaboration to the point of collusion between three well-funded and well-connected labs that dominate the field of paleogenomics, in a manner that harms their competitors. These labs are the Department of Genetics, Harvard Medical School (David cuck reich), the Department of Genetics, Max Planck Institute for Evolutionary Anthropology, Leipzig, Germany (director: Svante Pääbo), and the Department of Archeogenetics, Max Planck Institute for the Science of Human History, Jena, Germany (director: Johannes Krause).Small labs are unable to compete with the Big Three because they lack access to the datasets that would enable them to place their work in the context of the bigger picture. The only way to get access to the data is to give their samples to reichs or one of the other two teams, in return for being added to the list of contributors of their research paper.
The Big Three labs function as an oligopoly. Their power extends to funding, samples, data, and even technology. They have marginalized all competition and their dominance of the field leaves researchers and archaeologists with no option but to submit samples to them in return for a token junior authorship. Samples are routinely procured by extremely dubious means, often violating ethical norms. This has created a “smash and grab” culture among archaeologists in which hopeful co-authors source their bones by any means necessary, even under false pretenses. Among teams at work on any given excavation, it takes only a single colleague to deliver a bone to one of the industrial giants for the entire group to lose control of their findings. Ancient specimens in museums, too, are being swept up by these perverse incentives.
It isn’t unusual for junior authors to be given just days to review a finished manuscript, with little input into its broader framing.This has created an atmosphere of intense suspicion, anxiety and paranoia, among archaeologists and geneticists alike. In dozens of interviews with practitioners of both disciplines, almost everyone requested anonymity for fear of professional reprisal.
Reich and his team are accused by an ancient-dna researcher in turkey of seeing the rest of world as the 19th-century colonialists saw Africa — as raw-material opportunities and nothing else.Reich is shown to repeatedly arrive at broad, grandiose, sweeping conclusions about ancient migrations, invasions and wholesale replacements of onepopulation by another on the basis of flimsy and dubious evidence – in one case, on the basis of a single sample from a single island – and often uses different, unrelated,arbitrary population groups as stand-in proxies for modern populations whose DNA samples he is unable to procure. Moarover reich’s team makes “disproportionate or even wholly unwarranted claims on the basis of both the archaeological and genetic evidence it provides”.He and his team invariably express absolute certainty about their inferences and conclusions and presume to offer the final word on the ancestry and history of entire regions and cultures. They do not consider the possibility that their inferences could have been skewed by biases and faults in the set of assumptions that are inherent in their complex statistical models. Their paleogenomic papers, which are riddled with assumptions that are often weak, tenuous or outright unwarranted, end up being interpreted as fact.
Shekel hungry manwhoreich’s papers are immediately taken up and politicized by blogs such as Eurogenes, West Hunter, etc which happen to be cumskin master race delusional mafia.).
There is a shocking nexus between reich and the journal Nature, which is the world’s pre-eminent scientific journal, as well as other scientific journals. Nature is shown to violate long-established peer-review norms and standards when dealing with Reich’s papers.
Nature’s actions demonstrate clear favoritism toward Reich’s work.For example, Nature allowed reich, against its own norms, to revise and resubmit a paper that was rejected by reviewers (rejections are final, papers that are rejected are not allowed to be resubmitted).Rascal resubmitted his paper on the basis of flimsy new evidence. The revised paper addressed very few of the reviewers’ concerns. Nevertheless, Nature’s editors overruled the reviewers’ steadfast objections and accepted the paper. Editors overruling a peer-review panel is unheard of. Nature’s preferential treatment of Reich and his team is demonstrated by the fact that other researchers and teams that arrived at the same conclusions as Reich,but by different means, had their papers inexplicably rejected, which defies logic and justice.The journal Current Biology accepted a paper by Reich’s team just one week after it was submitted.Peer review and acceptance of a scientific paper in a week is an unprecedented feat, unheard of even among low-quality scientific journals. It is unheard of even among low-quality scientific journals. It takes a lot of time to review a scientific paper – typically several months – as any scientist can attest.The acceptance of a complex genetics paper in just one week is absurd to the point of being ridiculous. It is a red flag that raises the very real specter of possible scientific misconduct.
Reichs himself hasnt been able to defend it and you are trying to shill .
These are but a few of a large number of extremely serious and troubling revelations establishing a case of possible ongoing scientific misconduct and raise serious doubts about the veracity of the entire corpus of Reich’s research.They demonstrate that the glaring issues in reich’s papers that support the ait are repeated throughout the entire corpus of his and mafia work.
Cherrypicking LOL thats your kind who induldge in such mal practices . Evident from my previous posts and this post as well as you will see .
You have copying a bunch of lines from 1 of those research papers of reichs team and posting it here again without any elaborations on assumed parameters . Incoherent at best .
Lalji Singh and K Thangaraj showed that the ANI and ASI are considerably more than 12,500 years old, and not the result of any recent migration.
Reich was with them co author probably and he also got butthurt about this LOL
See https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3769933/
See - https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0002929711004885
I know where is all this coming from exactly . On 16 June 2017, an article appeared on the Hindu titled “How genetics is settling the Aryan migration debate” by Tony Joseph .
Joseph’s article is based on a peer-reviewed, which, at first sight, appears to be an impeccable source. Being published in a peer-reviewed journal, however, does not automatically endow a research paper with credibility. There are big issues with the peer review, which is known to be a flawed process Nobel prize-winning papers have been known to be rejected by the peer review, while works of low quality are often accepted.
See - https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC1420798/
Further they have misinterpreted the dating of the expansions within R1a-Z93 given in them as the age (Time to Most Common Recent Ancestor: TMCRA) of the subclade itself. The paper refers only to expansions within R1a-Z93 occurring approximately 4,000 – 4,500 years ago in South Asia; it does not refer to the time of the subclade’s diversification from its parent haplogroup; it makes no attempt to determine the subclade’s TMRCA and makes no claim that the date of the expansions coincides with the subclade’s TMRCA. Silva et al’s conclusions misrepresent the findings of which they cite, and are therefore incorrect.
silva et al. neglect to cite research papers that do not support their conclusions. Academic research papers must cite all research that is relevant to their work, even if it contradicts their findings (in which case they must prove that their work improves upon, or disproves that of their predecessors).
> This paper rekts your argument http://www.omicsonline.org/open-acc...plogroup-r1a-in-eurasia-2161-1041-1000150.pdf
In contrast, silva et al. neglect to cite the 2015 paper by Lucotte ^ which samples a dataset of 6643 male DNA samples originating from 79 populations in 52 countries (more than the samples of your silvas put together). Lucotte’s paper demonstrates that the Z93 subclade originated in India and is approximately 15,450 years old, thereby confirming and refining the results of several other studies.
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3514343/
Further also he neglect to cite the recent paper ^ by Tamang and Thangaraj which rejects the possibility of an Aryan invasion/migration and concludes that Indian populations are genetically unique and harbor the second highest genetic diversity after Africans.
Silva et al. are guilty of cherry-picking which you were trying to accuse me of lmao: they have selectively chosen data that support their conclusions, and tried to suppress data that doesn’t. A biased approach such as this invariably leads to skewed and inaccurate results and conclusions.
Further , joseph tony the krantikari dalal whos best frens with your scroll.in shoyab danyan and you interprets this to mean that there was a significant inflow of Indo-European language (which they infers to be Sanskrit) speakers from Central Asia into India in the Bronze Age, approximately 4,000 to 4,500 years ago (the so-called Aryan invasion/migration), even though the authors of your paper dont make no such claim, referring only to lineage expansions within R1a-Z93 in south Asia.
Fun fact .
View attachment 680638
Does he not know that R1a is a Y-chromosomal, patrilineal (male-only) haplogroup? Does he not know that the Y chromosome is absent in females (who have two X chromosomes)? Most high-school students would be able to teach him this! This is extraordinarily poor journalism; it is what happens when non-scientists write science articles.
Again this doesnt prove shit . It is indeed an easy way to check, based on various genetic studies:Firstly, is it a question of brahmins? The highest percentage of R1a1 among brahmins is in the east: Bengal 72%, Bihar 60%, eastern UP 48%. In most of the rest of the country, the percentages vary among the 30s (e.g. Gujarat 32%, Jammu 37%, Maharashtra 40%, Andhra 26%, Madhya Pradesh 35%, Punjab-Haryana 35%).
Compare the non-brahminical castes of North India: Punjab-Haryana Khatri 67%, Punjab Haryana Ahir 63%, Punjab Haryana Balmiki 33%, Haryana Meo 31%, Rajasthan Meena 38%, Rajasthan Meghwal 30%, Gujarat Bhanushali 67%, Gujarat Lohana 60%, Gujarat Kathodi 40%, Gujarat Charan 36%, Gujarat Rabari 32%, Gujarat Dongri Bhil 26%.....Then, is it a question of "Aryan" vs. "Dravidian"? Compare some of the Dravidian-speaking castes and particularly the tribes (some, like the Kota, representing among the purest and most pristine Dravidian forms of speech): Medar 39%, Ezhava 24%, Korava 24%, Andh 31%, Kare Vokkal 27%, Chenchu 26%, Kota 23%.Further, the Manipuri people in the far east, who speak the Sino-Tibetan Meitei language, have 50%. The starkness of this will be better understood if we examine the R1a1 (the "genetic signature" of Indo-european language speakers) percentages in the other Indo-European branch language speakers outside India, starting with the branch closest to Vedic, the Iranians:Amazingly, the percentage of R1a1 haplogroup in Iran is almost negligible: it ranges from around 3-4% in the western parts of Iran to less than 20% in the more central and eastern areas and among "the traditional custodians of the avestan text and language", the endogamy-practicing Zoroastrians in Iran as well as the Parsis in India.The Armenians have R1a1 ranging from 2% to 9%.The Greeks have from 11% to 17%.The Albanians have 2% to 10%.The Italic people of Spain, Portugal have around 2%. In Italy to the east, it is 4% to 5%, going up to 11% in the north-east in areas bordering eastern Europe. The Romanians, actually in eastern Europe, have as high as 20%.The Celtic people (Ireland, Scotland, Cornwall and Wales) have 1% to 7%.
The Germanic people (including Hitler's "pure Aryans") mostly have low percentages: in Germany from 8% to the highest 31% (in areas like Rostock), in Holland around 4%. In England, it ranges from 1% to 7% (except in Orkney, a Scottish island, where it is 27%, due to it having long been in control of the Norse people of Norway, who also have 27%).
In fact, among the Germanic populations, the Scandinavians (Norway, Sweden, but also the non-Indo-European Finland) have the highest consistent percentage of R1a1.It is only the Baltic and Slavic speakers of eastern Europe who have this haplogroup in high percentages: from 38% to 60%, going sometimes to as high as 65% (still less than the Bengali brahmins, which as we saw above, does not make it an "Aryan" or "brahmin" or "Indo-European" haplogroup!)―and the Iranian speakers of Afghanistan, and Central Asia: The Pathans 45-50%, the Baluchis 28%, Nooristanis 60%, Tajiks 31%!The dismal percentages among the Iranians proper, Greeks, Armenians and Albanians (as also Celts and most Italic speakers) may also be compared with the percentages in certain non-Indo-European Semitic groups of West Asia: 9% in Syria, as high as 43% among the Shammar tribes in Kuwait, and as high as 52% among the Ashkenazi Levites in Israel: Levites are a priestly class among "yahwehs chosen ", "'the traditional custodians of the Hebrew Old Testament text and language"!
In fact, even the Uralo-Altaic language speaking Uighurs of Central Asia and Sinkiang have 22%.
Clearly, while haplogroups may show genetic ancestral connections among different peoples of the world―and they yet tell nothing about the history of languages.
@SuvarnaTeja yo buddy check this out .
Anyways I gotta sleep right now brother . Will post any points if missed .
Regards
Cookson notes that Reich dismisses worries that DNA evidence of differences between populations is "racism in genetic clothing",[9]and that on the contrary, the "unsuspected degree of mixing"[9] in every part of human history makes old ideas of racial purity "absurd".[9]a marvelous synthesis of the field: the technology for purifying and decoding DNA from old bones; what the findings tell us about the origins and movements of people on every inhabited continent; and the ethical and political implications of the research.[9]
Hyperbole is your first resort? Really? Not only this but you and your butthurt hindutva supremacist clique claim Reich is the racist?? Moreover, did he really not respond to such allegations himself, as you claimed he didn't?It has blown the lid off a shocking scandal in paleogenomics
Reichs himself hasnt been able to defend it and you are trying to shill
Actually, it's your figures that don't "prove shitt"!Again this doesnt prove shit . It is indeed an easy way to check, based on various genetic studies:Firstly, is it a question of brahmins? The highest percentage of R1a1 among brahmins is in the east: Bengal 72%, Bihar 60%, eastern UP 48%. In most of the rest of the country, the percentages vary among the 30s (e.g. Gujarat 32%, Jammu 37%, Maharashtra 40%, Andhra 26%, Madhya Pradesh 35%, Punjab-Haryana 35%).
Compare the non-brahminical castes of North India: Punjab-Haryana Khatri 67%, Punjab Haryana Ahir 63%, Punjab Haryana Balmiki 33%, Haryana Meo 31%, Rajasthan Meena 38%, Rajasthan Meghwal 30%, Gujarat Bhanushali 67%, Gujarat Lohana 60%, Gujarat Kathodi 40%, Gujarat Charan 36%, Gujarat Rabari 32%, Gujarat Dongri Bhil 26%.....Then, is it a question of "Aryan" vs. "Dravidian"? Compare some of the Dravidian-speaking castes and particularly the tribes (some, like the Kota, representing among the purest and most pristine Dravidian forms of speech): Medar 39%, Ezhava 24%, Korava 24%, Andh 31%, Kare Vokkal 27%, Chenchu 26%, Kota 23%.Further, the Manipuri people in the far east, who speak the Sino-Tibetan Meitei language, have 50%. The starkness of this will be better understood if we examine the R1a1 (the "genetic signature" of Indo-european language speakers) percentages in the other Indo-European branch language speakers outside India, starting with the branch closest to Vedic, the Iranians:Amazingly, the percentage of R1a1 haplogroup in Iran is almost negligible: it ranges from around 3-4% in the western parts of Iran to less than 20% in the more central and eastern areas and among "the traditional custodians of the avestan text and language", the endogamy-practicing Zoroastrians in Iran as well as the Parsis in India.The Armenians have R1a1 ranging from 2% to 9%.The Greeks have from 11% to 17%.The Albanians have 2% to 10%.The Italic people of Spain, Portugal have around 2%. In Italy to the east, it is 4% to 5%, going up to 11% in the north-east in areas bordering eastern Europe. The Romanians, actually in eastern Europe, have as high as 20%.The Celtic people (Ireland, Scotland, Cornwall and Wales) have 1% to 7%.
The Germanic people (including Hitler's "pure Aryans") mostly have low percentages: in Germany from 8% to the highest 31% (in areas like Rostock), in Holland around 4%. In England, it ranges from 1% to 7% (except in Orkney, a Scottish island, where it is 27%, due to it having long been in control of the Norse people of Norway, who also have 27%).
In fact, among the Germanic populations, the Scandinavians (Norway, Sweden, but also the non-Indo-European Finland) have the highest consistent percentage of R1a1.It is only the Baltic and Slavic speakers of eastern Europe who have this haplogroup in high percentages: from 38% to 60%, going sometimes to as high as 65% (still less than the Bengali brahmins, which as we saw above, does not make it an "Aryan" or "brahmin" or "Indo-European" haplogroup!)―and the Iranian speakers of Afghanistan, and Central Asia: The Pathans 45-50%, the Baluchis 28%, Nooristanis 60%, Tajiks 31%!The dismal percentages among the Iranians proper, Greeks, Armenians and Albanians (as also Celts and most Italic speakers) may also be compared with the percentages in certain non-Indo-European Semitic groups of West Asia: 9% in Syria, as high as 43% among the Shammar tribes in Kuwait, and as high as 52% among the Ashkenazi Levites in Israel: Levites are a priestly class among "yahwehs chosen ", "'the traditional custodians of the Hebrew Old Testament text and language"!
You’re clutching at straws now by saying “there’s no way mathematically so few could overwhelm so many”. That isn’t based on fact but rather on your own conjecture. We know numerous instances of numerically superior nations and races being enslaved by numerically inferior attackers. The latin consquest of south America is but one example. If motivation and technology exist, it is entirely possible and indeed has happened not infrequently.
In more general terms (and you should regard this as my main conclusion) a mature reaction is required to the harsh realities of population intermixing – even if it was sometimes violent and oppressive in ancient times.
https://www.sciencemag.org/news/2017/05/theres-no-such-thing-pure-european-or-anyone-else
“We can falsify this notion that anyone is pure,” says population geneticist Lynn Jorde of the University of Utah in Salt Lake City. Instead, almost all modern humans “have this incredibly complex history of mixing and mating and migration.”
Lastly, let me remind you that posting lengthy and angry rants is a waste of everyone’s time, including my own. Stick to the science if you wish to argue with me about science. Stick to casual trolling and hey, I can indulge likewise. But do not cross the streams of these two distinct approaches to discourse with me, as your rants have polluted your attempts at scientific rebuttal, or perhaps it’s the other way around – your attempted science has polluted your highly developed aggressive ranting and name-calling. Likewise, do not indulge in attempts to character assassinate me by inferring some biased critique of any opinions I may or may not hold regarding race or religion.
What you talking about? I referred to examples of outnumbered but technologically and socially superior invaders enslaving (in the case of the Indian subcontinent) or destroying (in the case of south America) indigenous populations (however you choose to interpret "indigenous"). You're talking about something completely different.Really?!! Do we really find a "similar" replacement in Central Europe of the teeming millions of a materially rich Harappan-like non-Indo-European civilization mysteriously transformed overnight so completely,
Why are so many needed to overwhelm a backwards civilisation? This whole argument is pure CONJECTURE to suit your narrative. That's what I said before but you are providing your own fanciful interpretation of what I posited.research found upto 4X immigrants need to come to completly overwhelm. Saraswati civilization supported between to have 2000000 to 5000000 estimates .
Now you do the math 4x5000000 = 20000000 thar is
You're playing games now. Again, EXTRAPOLATION OF A NEGATIVE INFERENCE ON THE BASIS OF ABSENCE. In other words, absence of documentation doesn't prove absence. There are myriad political reasons for neglecting deliberately to comment on past history in a book intended to reeducate a subject population to yield to the will of a new ruling class. Not every socioreligious construct pays homage to a distant past or point of origin. If I was an invading Aryan, I would gladly forget my past in order to subvert my new subjects into a life of absolute slavery. It's the perfect recipe for absolute rule. But my explanation isn't the only one. A less aggressive explanation is also plausible where a ruling class of invaders merges with its subjects by deliberately writing its own previous history out of its texts - this is a way of convincing a local population to accept your absolute dynastic rule with slightly less mental subjugation. The Ptolemaic empire (syncretic) and other Greek and Persian origin empires were examples of this.e Rigveda, composed by them over 400 years from this point of time, has the following characteristics:
1. It contains no memories at all of any place beyond Afghanistan, much less memories of having come from places far beyond these areas, and in fact
shows deep and traditional reverence for the geography of the local area.
2. It contains not even the faintest sign or reference showing the contemporaneous or past presence in the area of any person or entity, friend or foe,
with non-Indo-European (much less specifically Dravidian, Austric, Burushaski, Sino-Tibetan, Andamanese, Uralo-Altaic, Semitic, Sumerian, or any other) names lol
You're starting to sound sensible now. It's important to accept that Hindustan is an amalgamation of invading/subjugating tribes, migrating tribes and native tribes. The Aryans are but one of many such invaders/subjugators.know of many peoples that migrated to India: Greeks, Scythians, Kushans (Tocharians), and Huns, among others. Modern India's population is undoubtedly mixed; an amalgamation of these various ethnicities.
I did not say your papers were 'outdated' but that they had been superseded. Try to understand.This has been pages long and your only arguments against me have been as to blaming me of showing outdated papers lacking validity ofcourse because they go against agenda and certain clevar positions larp . Nobody dont even know what to make out of that mean I saw your posts you have been bullying others in this thread and now ts you are the one whos being trying to dodge eve
Listen, your pathetic RANT has taken on new proportions. Citing NYT and Acta Archeologica is great but for every one journal condemning Reich, there are a dozen praising him.

"has developed some of the most sophisticated statistical and bioinformatics techniques available.
Whoever said other groups didn't admix later on with every single one of the groups you've mentioned outside of India, including your Iranian examples? You're again clutching at straws and popping raw numbers without even bothering to consider admixture beyond the Steppe specific ancestry. Is it even remotely plausible that all these groups' lineages froze after the Steppe contributions? Obviously not! So this ridiculous conjecture is non-contributory to the argument. That said, there is at least one reasonable (albeit unproven) inference that can be made from your not so useless percentage spam - that the haplogroup survived and sustained itself in Hindustan precisely because it was protected by a favourable social circumstance (caste specific endogamy) hence it propagated indefinitely whereas in other unprotected civilisations, it became more diluted over time.
